CYBRARY STUDY GUIDE

Prepare Yourself to Pass the A+ 801 Exam

If you’re in need of a refresher, head over to our CompTIA A+ course for additional background on the important topics in this study guide. With sufficient training and helpful resources such as this one, you should be fully prepared to take and pass the A+ exam.

The basis for any IT career starts with the A+ certification. CompTIA’s entry-level certification demonstrates competency in networking and security, essential knowledge areas for becoming an IT professional. The vendor-neutral certification is ideal for those who wish to work as IT support staff and field service technicians. A+ is split into two knowledge areas for the exam: 801 and 802. This study guide provides information of the 801 portion of the certification exam, covering topics such as the A+ troubleshooting model, computer buses and active directory authentication.

Fire Extinguisher Basics

What class of fire extinguisher should you use on computer fires?

  1. Class A
  2. Class B
  3. Class C
  4. Class D

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: You should always be prepared to deal with fires produced from electrical equipment. Electrical fires require a Class C fire extinguisher that is formulated with halon.

Extinguishing Chemical Fires

What type of fire extinguishing substance interrupts the chemical reaction of burning materials?

  1. CO2
  2. Dry Chemicals
  3. Halon
  4. Water

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: Halon gas interrupts the chemical reaction of burning materials. It is typically found in Class C fire extinguishers and should be used on electrical fires such as those from computer and networking equipment.

Electrostatic Discharge Precautions

True or false? The reason you need to be concerned about electrostatic discharge is because it can be fatal to humans.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Static charges can build up on your body, especially when the air is dry, and will jump a small air gap as it seeks a lower ground potential. Static charges can exceed 20kV, but are extremely low in current – a few micro amps typically. Though electrostatic discharge (ESD) is not harmful to you, it can damage the sensitive solid state components on a circuit board. That is why it’s important that you follow proper sensitive components handling procedures such as wearing an ESD wrist strap.

Equipment Disposal Procedures

True or false? Batteries, toner cartridges, and ink cartridges can be disposed of in landfills without any consequences.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Many computer components contain hazardous materials that must be safely and ecologically disposed of. This means that they can not simply be tossed in the dumpster which is headed for the landfill. Batteries contain heavy metals such as nickel, mercury, or cadmium. CRTs contain phosphorus and sometimes mercury and lead and other precious metals. Precious metals such as gold can be recycled and the proceeds turned over to the organization. Check your local municipality for laws and procedures governing the recycling and disposal of computer equipment.

Computer Buses

Which type of bus connects the processor to the main memory? (Choose all that apply)

  1. Address bus
  2. Data bus
  3. Internal bus
  4. Generic bus

Answer: The correct answer is 1 and 2.

Breakdown: The processor (CPU) connects to the main memory using both the address bus and data bus. A specific location in main memory is accessed by placing its address on the address bus and its contents are then either read or written across the data bus.

PCI Basics

By convention, PCI slots are typically what color?

  1. Brown
  2. Gray
  3. Tan
  4. White

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: PCI connectors (slots) are typically white. AGP slots are usually brown, though are sometimes maroon or some other dark color.

PCI Bus Size

Typically, the PCI bus is a(n) ____-bit bus.

  1. 16-bit
  2. 32-bit
  3. 64-bit
  4. 128-bit

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: The PCI is most commonly found as a 32-bit bus running at 33 MHz. There is also a 66 MHz bus speed. A less common variant of PCI bus is one that supports a 64-bit bus.

AGP Basics

The bus speed of a 2x, 4x, or 8x AGP card is _.

  1. 33 MHz
  2. 66 MHz
  3. 266 MBps
  4. 533 MBps

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: The bus speed of AGP – regardless of transfer rate – is 66 MHz. Higher transfer rates are achieved by pumping up the number of bits transferred per clock cycle in the #x speed variants.

BIOS Updating Reasons

Which isn’t a reason to update your system BIOS?

  1. Your system has device problems or other bugs that your PC manufacturer identifies as being caused by BIOS problems.
  2. Your system has device problems that you can attribute to no other cause than the BIOS.
  3. Your PC manufacturer has sent out a technical document notifying you of an update.
  4. You need to use new hardware options that, while supported by your motherboard, aren’t supported by your BIOS.

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: In general, you only want to update your computer’s BIOS in the event that something isn’t working as expected. This includes a recent malfunction or in the event of upgrading hardware. Just because the manufacturer has released an updated BIOS doesn’t mean you need to rush to update it if things are functioning normally.

BIOS Flashing Utilities

True or false? Every BIOS manufacturer uses the same flashing utility.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: There is no guarantee that one BIOS flashing utility is identical between manufacturers just as it’s not reasonable to expect that BIOS images are the same between vendors. Always make certain that you obtain both the flashing utility and BIOS update from the manufacturer of your PC.

BIOS Updates Source

What is the best source for BIOS updates?

  1. Best Buy
  2. Online driver sites
  3. BIOS Manufacturer
  4. Manufacturer of your PC

Answer: The correct answer is 4. Breakdown. Though the BIOS manufacturer creates the core image for your PC’s BIOS, it is delivered to the manufacturer in an incomplete form. The PC manufacturer then finalizes the configuration so that it is essentially “set and forget” for the end user. You must always obtain BIOS updates from the manufacturer of your PC and never attempt to obtain them from third-parties you find online.

Video Adapters

You wish to install a high-performance video adapter in your PC to improve your gaming experience. What do you need to do to disable the cheap, integrated video adapter so it doesn’t cause a conflict?

  1. Disable it via the Device Manager under the Control Panel
  2. Unplug all internal cables from the integrated video adapter
  3. Configure jumpers on the motherboard to disable the video adapter
  4. Disable the integrated video adapter from the CMOS setup

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: Low-level hardware configuration such as disabling the integrated video adapter is performed from within the BIOS CMOS setup utility.

CPU Basics

Which is not a component of a CPU?

  1. Bus architecture
  2. Control unit
  3. Execution unit
  4. Register

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: a CPU consists of three main components: a control unit, an execution unit, and a set of registers. The CPU itself sits on a bus architecture that interconnects it to main memory and other components within the system.

Single Core Processor

A single-core processor has one of what components?

  1. Control unit
  2. Execution unit
  3. FPU
  4. Register

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Multi-core processors have multiple execution units. This is the CPU component that is scaled in multi-core architectures. A single-core processor has a single execution unit.

Processor Storage

What are very small, very fast memory locations for holding instructions or units of data?

  1. Caches
  2. FPUs
  3. Registers
  4. ALUs

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: During operation, CPUs store data and instructions in registers. Registers are very small, yet very fast memory locations within the CPU. Registers operate at the same speed as the CPU and provide much faster access than main memory.

Caching Levels

Which processor caching level is the fastest for accessing data?

  1. Level 1
  2. Level 2
  3. Level 3
  4. All are equal

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: The Level 1 cache is the fastest caching level since it’s physically located closest to the CPU’s internal bus.

CPU Performance Techniques

Which of the following performance features can overheat the processor?

  1. Multiprocessing
  2. Overclocking
  3. Pipelining
  4. Superpipelining e. Throttling

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Features such multiprocessing, pipelining, overclocking, and superpipelining are all methods to boost processor performance, however, overclocking is a non-supported performance method that involves increasing the system clock to achieve a higher CPU instruction rate. It comes at the cost of increased CPU heat dissipation and increased error rate.

Chip Packages

Which package type has no pins, but uses small raised contacts instead?

  1. LGA
  2. OOI
  3. PDIP
  4. SECC

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: A land grid array (LGA) package has no pins, but instead uses raised contacts that may either be soldered directly to a circuit board using surface mount techniques or inserted into a socket.

CPU Swapping

True or false? CPUs of the same class are interchangeable. For example, you can replace any Pentium 4 CPU on a motherboard with any other Pentium 4-class CPU.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: There are at least 3 different socket types for the Pentium 4 class LGA chip package. There are also different chip sets associated with a particular processor and they often cannot be mixed and matched.

Cooling Systems

Which cooling system relies on small tubes filled with a small amount of fluid?

  1. Cooling fins
  2. Heat Pipes
  3. Heat sinks
  4. Peltier coolers

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Heat pipes are small tubes typically built into cooling fins that are filled with a small amount of fluid. Heat from the component vaporizes the fluid, which in turn expands and rises to another area of the piping from where it is transferred away. The fluid then condenses and flows back toward the CPU, thus repeating the cooling cycle.

Electricity Basics

Which is a derived quantity that is calculated by multiplying voltage (electrical force) by current (measure of the flow of electrons past a given point)?

  1. Current
  2. Electrical power
  3. Impedance
  4. Resistance e. Voltage

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Electrical power, measured in watts (W), is a derived quantity that is calculated by multiplying the voltage (E) by the current (I). It is the measure of the energy delivered by the flow of electricity. Power supplies are rated according to the watts of electrical power then can supply.

Opposition to Electrical Current

What opposes the flow of direct current (DC) through a conductor and what is it measured in?

  1. Current, ohms
  2. Current, amps
  3. Voltage, volts
  4. Resistance, ohms

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: Resistance is the opposition to direct current flow and is measured in ohms. 1 ohm is the amount of resistance required to produce a current of 1 amp to flow in a circuit supplied by 1 volt of electrical potential.

Ohm’s Law

What is the formula relating voltage, current, and resistance?

  1. i = V * r
  2. r = V * i
  3. V = i * r
  4. V = i/r

Answer: The correct answer is 3. Breakdown. The relationship between voltage, current, and resistance is stated by the formulV = i * r, which is known as Ohm’s Law. A voltage of 1 v applied across a resistance of 1 ohm will cause an electrical current of 1 amp to flow in the circuit.

Electrical Resistance

True or false? At a given voltage, current increases as resistance drops.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: From solving for electrical current (i) using Ohm’s Law: i = V / r, we can see that as resistance (r) decreases, electrical current (i) increases. This is why you’re at increased risk for injury from electrical shock if the voltage is high and the resistance presented by your body is low, which in turn will cause a higher electrical current to pass across or through your body.

Motherboard Power Requirements

What are the estimated power requirements of a typical motherboard?

  1. 5 W
  2. 10 W
  3. 30 W
  4. 50 W e 100 W

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: The estimated power requirements for a motherboard are 30 W, not including the power for the CPU chip and memory. This is for full power mode – not sleep or hibernate modes.

Computer Power Consumption

Which component requires the most power?

  1. Adapter card
  2. CPU
  3. Hard drive
  4. Memory e. Motherboard

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: With a power requirement of between 65-140 W in some cases, the CPU chip requires the most power. Faster processors consume a great deal of power and this is evident from the large heat sinks and fans they require.

Power Supply Basics

Which color wire in a power supply cable is typically connected to ground?

  1. Black
  2. Green
  3. Red
  4. Yellow

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: The black wire in a power supply cable is connected to ground. Yellow provides +12 V, Red +5 V, Orange +3.3 V.

Memory Chip Storage Locations

The actual storage locations on a memory chip are called what?

  1. Bits
  2. Cells
  3. RAM
  4. Word

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: The actual storage locations on a memory chip are called cells. Each cell stores a single bit of data, which can represent either a 0 or 1.

Memory Unit Size

Which memory unit’s size is determined by the processor?

  1. Bit
  2. Byte
  3. Nibble
  4. Word

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: A bit, byte, and nibble are fixed units of measurement. A word is dependent on the CPU architecture of the system and can vary from 16-bits to 32-bits to 64-bits.

Memory Contents Persistence

Which term refers to the type of memory that loses its contents when power isn’t present?

  1. Asynchronous
  2. Dynamic
  3. Nonvolatile
  4. Static e. Synchronous f. Volatile

Answer: The correct answer is f.

Breakdown: Memory that loses its contents after the power is turned

RAM Types

What type of RAM loses its contents quickly, even when power is present?

  1. DRAM
  2. Flash
  3. SRAM
  4. EEPROM

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: Dynamic RAM (DRAM) requires a refresh cycle in order to retain its contents during operation. Conversely, Static RAM (SRAM) doesn’t require refreshing in order to retain its contents while power is supplied to the system.

Memory Clocking

Which types of memory is tied to the system clock?

  1. Asynchronous
  2. Dynamic
  3. Nonvolatile
  4. Synchronous

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: Synchronous DRAM (SDRAM) is tied to the system clock. Modern SDRAM returns data from a memory cell in a single system clock cycle. As a result, SDRAM is faster than asynchronous DRAM since it keeps pace with the rest of the system. Asynchronous DRAM takes the same amount of time to access and return data from a memory cell independent of the system clock, which often operates at a much faster rate.

Memory Performance

What is defined as the amount of data that can be transferred to or from memory per second?

  1. Access time
  2. Bandwidth
  3. Memory speed
  4. Overall speed

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Access time and memory speed all contribute to the bandwidth of a memory device, which is defined as the amount of data that can be transferred to or from memory per second.

Memory Packages

Which memory packages are used in laptop or notebook computers? (Choose all that apply)

  1. 144-pin MICRODIMM
  2. 184-pin RIMM
  3. 200-pin SODIMM
  4. 240-pin DIMM

Answer: The correct answer is 1 and 3.

Breakdown: The smaller SODIMM and MICRODIMM packages are used in laptops and sub-notebooks respectively.

Memory Error Detection

True or false? Parity permits your computer to not only detect that an error has occurred, but also to correct the error.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Parity is a simple error detection mechanism that calculates the sum of a byte of data and sets a ninth bit to indicate if it calculated it to be even or odd. In this way, the system can determine if an error has occurred with a memory access, but is unable to correct the error. A more sophisticated error detection method called Error Correction Code (ECC) code bothers to detect and correct memory access errors.

Storage Devices

Lower power consumption and less heat generation are advantages of what storage device?

  1. Memory stick
  2. SD card
  3. SSD
  4. CF card

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: A solid state drive (SSD) uses memory chips to read and write data instead of using a rotating disk. As a result, it has lower power consumption and less heat generation than a hard disk drive.

IDE Drive Configuration

You can configure an IDE drive to be in what state using jumpers or switches on the drive. (Choose all that apply)

  1. Read only
  2. Master
  3. Slave
  4. Cable select

Answer: The correct answer is 2, 3 and 4.

Breakdown: An IDE drive can be set to master, slave, or cable select using either jumpers or switches on the drive.

RAID Disks

What are the minimum number of hard disks required to implement a RAID-5 volume?

  1. Two
  2. Three
  3. Four
  4. Five

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: RAID level 5 requires a minimum of three hard disks, though more are often used.

RAID Disk Mirroring

What term is used to describe disk mirroring when each drive is connected to its own hard disk controller?

  1. Disk mirroring
  2. Disk duplexing
  3. Shadowing
  4. Controller mirror

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Disk mirroring is when data is duplicated on multiple drives in order to create redundancy. In the event of a failure of one of the disk drives, data can be read from the secondary drive (or disks). Disk duplexing is when each disk comprising the mirror is managed by a separate adapter.

RAID Levels

Which RAID level provides no fault tolerance?

  1. RAID 0
  2. RAID 1
  3. RAID 4
  4. RAID 5

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: Though RAID 0 uses multiple drives to increase disk performance to reduce wear, it provides no redundancy. A loss of a single disk in the stripe set destroys the data on the entire volume.

DVD Capacity

What is the capacity of double-sided, dual-layer (on both sides) DVDs?

  1. 4.7 GB
  2. 8.5 GB
  3. 9.4 GB
  4. 17.1 GB

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: A dual-layer, double-sided DVD (DVD-18) has a capacity of 17.1 GB when writing to both sides. It’s the highest capacity DVD type available.

Parallel Interface Basics

True or false? In parallel transmission, bits of data are sent one at a time across the transmission medium.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: In serial transmission bits of data are sent sequentially across a single wire. Conversely, in parallel transmission 8 bits are sent simultaneously, each across its own separate wire.

USB Standards

Which USB version has a top transfer speed of 480 Mbps?

  1. USB 1.0
  2. USB 1.1
  3. USB 2.0
  4. USB 3.0

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: USB 2.0 has a top speed (hi-speed) of 480 Mbps. It has a low-speed of 1.5 Mbps and full-speed of 12 Mbps.

DVI Standards

Which DVI connection types support both digital and analog signals? (Choose all that apply)

  1. DVI-D single link
  2. DVI-D dual-link
  3. DVI-I single-link
  4. DVI-I dual-link

Answer: The correct answer is 3 and 4.

Breakdown: The key to remembering which DVI connection types support both digital and analog signals is to know that “Integrated” DVI, designated by the letter “I”, supports both signal types. Therefore, DVI-I in both the single and dual-link varieties supports both digital and analog signals.

PS/2 Keyboard Port Identification

What color is a PS/2 keyboard port?

  1. Black
  2. Green
  3. Pink
  4. Purple e. Red f. Yellow

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: Keyboard ports (PS/2 and USB) are typically purple or surrounded by a purple label and might be accompanied by a keyboard icon. They are typically located next to the nearly identical mouse port.

PS/2 Mouse Port Identification

What color is the PS/2 mouse port?

  1. Black
  2. Green
  3. Pink
  4. Purple e. Red f. Yellow

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Mouse ports (PS/2 and USB) are typically green or surrounded by a green label and might be accompanied by a mouse icon. They are typically located next to the nearly identical keyboard port.

USB Connectors

Which USB connector is wide and flat?

  1. Type A
  2. Type B

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: USB ports and connectors come in two shapes: Type A and Type B. Type A ports and connectors are wide and flat and are used at the PC end of a USB-to-device connection. If the device uses a removable cable rather than a permanently connected one, it uses a Type B connector, which is narrow and square.

USB Cable Length

You can get effective cable lengths of up to 25 meters with USB by doing what?

  1. Employing a USB repeater
  2. Using a USB cable rated for 25 meters
  3. Daisy chaining hubs
  4. Increasing the voltage supplied to the port

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: The recommended maximum length for USB cables is 3 meters and 5 meters for USB 1.1 and USB 2.0 respectively. Theoretically, you could connect devices up to 25 meters away by daisy chaining USB hubs.

FireWire 800

How many pins does a FireWire 800 connector have?

  1. 4
  2. 6
  3. 8
  4. 9

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: FireWire devices use a 9-pin connector at both ends of the cable. FireWire devices only operate at full speed (800 Mbps) when you connect them to a FireWire 800 port.

Sound Card Connectors

What size are the connectors on a sound card?

  1. 1/16″
  2. 1/8″
  3. 1/4″
  4. 1/2″

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Sound card connectors typically use 1/8″ audio connectors. Other audio connections can use HDMI for connecting high-end audio output, such as those used in home-theater settings.

CRT Device

What’s another name for a CRT device?

  1. DVI device
  2. Flat-panel device
  3. LCD device
  4. RGB device

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: Color cathode ray terminals (CRTs) use three electron beams to produce images. Each beam is a separate color: red, green, and blue. This is why CRTs are also referred to as RGB devices.

CRT Display Size

How is a CRT device’s size measure?

  1. Diagonal measurement, edge to edge
  2. Diagonal measurement, picture tube edges only
  3. Total are, length x width
  4. Width

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: A CRT’s screen size is the diagonal measurement, in inches, of the entire picture tube. This measurement can be misleading because it includes areas of the picture tube that are within the bezel and are not part of the viewable area. A more accurate, and honest, size measurement is the true viewable area.

Display Resolution

True or false? “Resolution” refers to the relationship between the horizontal and verticals sizes of the screen.

True

  1. False

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Resolution is the total number of pixels a display contains. Aspect ratio is the ratio of the horizontal dimension to the vertical dimension.

Contrast Ratio

True or false? “Contrast ratio” refers to the difference between the shades of each color on an LCD device.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: The contrast ratio of an LCD device is the ratio of the brightest white to the darkest black.

Display Response Rate

True or false? A response rate of 20 ms is better than a response rate 0f 8 ms.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: The response rate measures how quickly the pixels of an LCD display change colors. The lower the response rate, the better the performance. Newer LCD displays have a response rate in the 2-4ms range.

LCD Display Technology

True or false? LCD devices use thin film transistor technology.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: LCD displays use thin-film transistor (TFT) technology. Modern LCDs use an active-matrix TFT to control the liquid crystals that make up the display. A transistor controls each pixel’s transparency by setting the electric field to adjust the liquid crystal’s alignment.

LCD Native Resolution

Why is an LCD device display somewhat blurry when configured below its native resolution?

  1. The display doesn’t receive full power
  2. The refresh rate is reduced
  3. The aspect ratio is reduced
  4. Not all of the pixels are turned on

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: When an LCD display is configured below its native resolution not all of its pixels are turned on, causing the display to be somewhat blurry and less clear than if all of the available pixels were used.

Multiple Computers on Single Console

What device allows you to connect multiple computers to a single keyboard, video display, and mouse?

  1. Hub
  2. KVM switch
  3. Bridge
  4. UPS

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: A KVM switch, which stands for “keyboard, video, mouse” is a hardware device that allows you to connect multiple computers to a single keyboard, video display, and mouse. Each computer is connected to the KVM box through a cable set. The console components in turn are connected to additional ports on the KVM. Switching between computers is achieved either via a switch on the KVM or by configuring a keyboard shortcut to initiate the switching.

Multiple Displays

True or false? Windows 7 supports the use of multiple displays simultaneously.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: Multiple displays are supported by operating systems such as Windows 7, Windows Vista, Windows XP, Windows 2000 and Windows 98. This arrangement is useful for working with large spreadsheets, multiple related documents, and other large documents.

Microphone Port Identification

What color is the microphone port?

  1. Pink
  2. Green
  3. White
  4. Blue

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: The microphone port is typically pink in color. It may also be further identified with a label displaying a microphone icon and/or the abbreviation “mic.”

Webcam Features

True or false? All webcams include built-in microphones and software for video email, video capture, videoconferencing, and still-image capture.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Many webcams include built-in microphones, and most include software for video email, video capture, videoconferencing, and still-image. Since some webcams don’t provide all of these features, it’s important to check the product specs before purchasing if these features are important to you.

Impact Printers

The print quality of dot-matrix printers is often compared to what?

  1. Darkroom photographs
  2. Laser print output
  3. Thermal printer output
  4. Typewriter output

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: A dot-matrix printer uses pins that are pushed forward in patterns to form letters, numbers, and other characters. Print quality on dot-matrix printers is comparable to that produced on a typewriter.

Impact Printer Types

What type of impact printer produces letters using a plastic disk installed on the printer?

  1. Inkjet
  2. Dot-matrix
  3. Thermal bubble
  4. Daisy-wheel

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: Daisy-wheel printers produce letters by pushing individual splines that contain characters on their ends arranged around a plastic wheel against an ink ribbon. The process is very similar to a typewriter. You are limited to the single font contained on the wheel.

Inkjet Printer Types

Which printing technology uses an electrical current sent to a crystal, which causes it to vibrate and release ink onto the paper?

  1. Inkjet
  2. Laser
  3. Piezoelectric bubble
  4. Thermal bubble

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: Piezoelectric technology is an inkjet technology that creates an ink bubble with a piezo crystal behind each nozzle. An electrical current sent to the crystal causes it to vibrate. When it vibrates inward, it releases ink onto the paper; when it vibrates outward, it pulls ink from the cartridge.

Print Heads

True or false? The print head for inkjet printers is usually part of the ink cartridge.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: The print head for an inkjet printer is usually part of the ink cartridge. As a result, since the print head is the part that wears out the soonest, having it replaced each time the ink is replaced keeps this component in good condition during the life of the printer.

Inkjet Output Quality

Inkjet output quality is usually compared to what?

  1. Darkroom photographs
  2. Laser printer output
  3. Thermal printer output
  4. Typewriter output

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: With advances in inkjet technology, the print quality of graphics and photos is compared to the standard provided by darkroom photographs.

Laser Printing Steps

In which laser printing step are areas of the drum that were written to by the laser attract toner?

  1. Exposing
  2. Fusing
  3. Developing
  4. Transferring

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: Laser printers use electrostatic charges to write the image to print. A charged drum attracts toner to ink the image in a step referred to as “developing”.

Laser Printer Basics

Which laser printer component is made up of rollers and a heating lamp?

  1. Electronic control package
  2. Fusing assembly
  3. Transfer corona assembly
  4. Toner cartridge

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: The fusing assembly is composed of rollers and a heating lamp. It applies heat and pressure to adhere the toner permanently to the paper.

Laser Printer Components

Which laser printer component is used to focus the laser beam?

  1. Corona wire
  2. HVPS
  3. Mirror
  4. Lens

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: The lens of a laser printer focuses the laser beam on the drum. Multiple lenses might be used to focus the laser beam on various areas of the drum depending on their distance from the mirror and laser beam.

Printer Installation

True or false? In order to install a printer, you need the manufacturer’s disc that came with the printer.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Windows plug-n-play (PnP) service is often able to automatically locate and install the necessary drivers for many printers. In the event that it is unable to do so, then you will need to provide the appropriate printer driver either from the installation disc or from the manufacturer’s website

Printer Installation Utility

In Windows 7, which utility do you use to install a printer?

  1. Control Panel
  2. Network Settings
  3. Printer and File Sharing
  4. Device Manager

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: Ordinarily, Windows 7 is able to auto detect new devices such as a printer and automatically install the necessary device drivers via PnP. When this process fails, you will then need to use the Device Manager utility to install and configure a new printer.

Printer Connections

Which connections can you use to connect to a wire local printer? (Choose all that apply)

  1. Parallel connection
  2. Serial connection
  3. USB connection
  4. Wi-Fi connection

Answer: The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Breakdown: Most printers today are connected locally by USB interfaces. Some older ones use either a parallel or serial connection. Printers attached to a home network are often used as wireless network connection (Wi-Fi).

Inkjet Maintenance

What are the most important steps to keep an inkjet printer running smoothly? (Choose all that apply)

  1. Replace consumables
  2. Keep unit dust-free
  3. Replace cable and power cord regularly
  4. Provide proper ventilation

Answer: The correct answer is 1, 2 and 4.

Breakdown: Keeping an inkjet in good working order consists of a few basic precautions: Replace consumables such as paper and ink cartridges whenever necessary Make certain that the printer is in a well-ventilated environment to ensure that it doesn’t overheat Keep dust out of the printer to ensure that clog print cartridges or block airflow and cause overheating

Laser Printer Maintenance

What is typically the deciding factor in when to perform laser printer maintenance? (Choose all that apply)

  1. Once a year
  2. Scheduled maintenance intervals
  3. Unscheduled service calls
  4. Whenever paper is added

Answer: The correct answer is 2 and 3.

Breakdown: Generally, there are two times when you should perform preventative maintenance on laser printers: scheduled maintenance and unscheduled service calls. During these times, cleaning, lubrication, and adjustments based on the manufacturer’s recommended schedules should be performed.

Toner Vacuums

True or false? You can use most commercial vacuums to clean up laser printer toner.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Laser printer toner can be toxic if inhaled at high levels. When cleaning up toner, don’t use a regular vacuum cleaner or even an anti-static vacuum cleaner. Use only a special toner-certified vacuum, which has a filter designed to catch superfine toner particles.

Notebook Component Replacement

What category of components can you replace in a computer without turning off the power?

  1. Plug-n-Play
  2. Hot-swappable
  3. Internal
  4. RAM

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Hot-swappable components are the kind that you can add or remove without turning the computer off. A few examples are PCMCIA, ExpressCard, and USB devices, among others.

Notebook Internal Component Replacement

For what category of components should you turn off the power to the computer before attempting to replace them?

  1. Coldplug
  2. Plug-n-Play
  3. External
  4. Card services

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: A component that isn’t hot-swappable requires that the computer be turned off before you can add or remove the component. This process is often referred to as coldplug. In notebook computers, internal components such as the hard disk and memory are often coldplug devices.

Safe Hardware Removal

In windows 7, Vista, and XP, what category of components can you remove by using the Safely Remove Hardware icon in the notification area?

  1. Pointing devices
  2. Networking cables
  3. Power adapter
  4. Hot-swap

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: Some computer components require a simple hot-swap that shuts down the component before removing it. In the Windows operating systems, you accomplish this by clicking the Safely Remove Hardware icon in the system tray to stop the device prior to removal.

Notebook Memory Modules

Which type of memory module package is typically used in notebook computers?

  1. DIMM
  2. MicroDIMM
  3. SIMM
  4. SODIMM

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: SODIMM (“Small Outline” DIMM) memory module packages are typically used in notebook computers because of their small size. MicroDIMM modules are even smaller and are typically used in sub-notebook computers.

PC Card Types

Which PC Card type is typically used for network adapters and modems and for adding FireWire and SCSI ports?

  1. Type I
  2. Type II
  3. Type III
  4. All types

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Type II PC Card adapters are the most commonly encountered adapters in notebook computers. They are typically used for network adapters and modems, for adding ports such as FireWire and SCSI, and sometimes for memory.

Notebook Battery Types

Which battery type isn’t typically used to power a notebook computer?

  1. Lithium ion (Li-Ion)
  2. Alkaline
  3. Nickel metal-hydride (NiMH)
  4. Nickel cadmium (NiCad)

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Alkaline batteries are typically not used to power a notebook computer, mainly because they are not rechargeable.

Notebook Computer Batteries

Which type of battery is used most often in notebook computers?

  1. Lithium ion (Li-Ion)
  2. Nickel cadmium (NiCad)
  3. Nickel metal-hydride (NiMH)
  4. Zinc Air

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: Lithium ion (Li-Ion) batteries are most commonly used to power notebook computers today. Li-Ion batteries are lightweight and have a long battery life.

Notebook Computer Built-in Components

Which components are typically built into a notebook computer? (Choose all that apply)

  1. Monitor
  2. Printer
  3. Scanner
  4. Pointing device

Answer: The correct answer is 1 and 4.

Breakdown: A monitor in the form of an LCD display and some form of pointing device, typically a trackpad, are built into notebook computers.

Notebook Display Technology

Which LCD technology uses the least amount of power?

  1. Active matrix
  2. Passive matrix
  3. Reflective
  4. Transflective e. Transmissive

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: Reflective LCD technology uses a mirror to reflect ambient light and to illuminate the display. This technology uses the least amount of power from the notebook computer’s battery. Reflective technology screens are ideal for use in bright sunlight, but are dim when you view them indoors.

Common Notebook Displays

Which are the two most common types of notebook displays?

  1. LED
  2. OCD
  3. OLED
  4. LCD

Answer: The correct answer is 1 and 4.

Breakdown: The two most common notebook display types today are LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) and LED (Light-emitting Diode). The LED notebook display is really an LCD screen, but with LED back-lighting. LED-backlit displays produce a brighter display and allow for a thinner, lighter notebook design. In addition, they consume less power, which helps extend battery life. These types of displays are more expensive than conventional LCD screens, although there is a downward trend in price as they become more popular.

Notebook Display Backlighting

What is the biggest advantage of CCFLs over LEDs?

  1. Lower cost
  2. Brighter display
  3. Higher resolution
  4. Smaller size lower power consumption

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: LED backlighting is a newer technology that uses an LED strip rather than a fluorescent tube. The LED has the advantages of a smaller size and lower power consumption over Cold Cathode Fluorescent Lamp (CCFL) display technology.

Dual Purpose Keys

To access the alternate purpose of a dual-purpose key, you press the desired key while also holding down which key?

  1. Alt
  2. Ctrl
  3. Fn
  4. Shift

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: Function keys are commands keys that, when pressed in combination with specially-designated keys, provide expanded functionality. Functions include adjusting the volume, display brightness, and switching between the built-in and external monitors. Alternate functions sometimes differ between notebook brands and models, so be sure to check the user documentation for a full list.

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Public folder sharing is turned off by default (except on a homegroup). When Public folder sharing is turned on, anyone on your computer or network can access these folders. When it’s off, only people with a user account and password on your computer can access them.

Port Replicators

True or false? You can leave peripheral devices plugged into a port replicator when the notebook is connected, but not into a docking station.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Port replicators as well as docking stations allow you to keep peripheral devices such as external monitors and keyboards plugged in when you need to take the notebook with you. Both devices, in essence, replicate the peripheral ports of the notebook in order to allow this. Docking stations include additional features such as slots for full-size desktop PCI cards, additional media/accessory bays, CD drives and other expansion slots.

Notebook Physical Security

How can you physically secure a notebook?

  1. Install an alarm
  2. Install webcam surveillance software
  3. Set it to self-destruct
  4. Secure it with a physical tie-down

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: Some notebooks have a security locking slot on the outside of the case typically indicated by a symbol of a padlock next to it. You can use this slot to attach a cable lock with the other end looped around a fixed, sturdy object.

Network Types

Which types of network is a specifically designed configuration of computers and other devices located within a confined area?

  1. Peer-to-peer network
  2. Local area network
  3. Client/server network
  4. Wide area network

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: A local area network (LAN) is a specifically designed configuration of computers and other devices located within a confined area, such as a home or office building, and connected by wires or radio waves that permit connected devices to communicate with one another or share data and services.

Network Topologies – 1

In which network topology is each node connected to a central network transmission device such as a hub or a switch?

  1. Bus
  2. Mesh
  3. Ring
  4. Star

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: In a star topology, each node is connected to a central network connectivity device such as a hub or a switch. This device then distributes the information packets it receives to the star’s nodes. In a star topology, each node has its own wired or wireless connection to the hub.

Network Topologies – 2

In which network topology is each node connected to the next by a direct line so that a continuous line is formed?

  1. Bus
  2. Mesh
  3. Ring
  4. Star

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: In a bus topology, each node is connected to the next by a direct line so that a continuous line is formed. There’s no central point in such an arrangement. Each node is simply connected to the next one on either side of it. The ends of the bus are closed off with a terminator device to prevent signal reflection which could generate interference on the line.

Network Topologies – 3

In which network topology is each node connected to a central device by two wires?

  1. Bus
  2. Mesh
  3. Ring
  4. Star

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: In a ring topology, each node is connected to two nodes on either side of it such that all nodes form a continuous loop. Communication is enabled by passing a token around the ring to each node. When a node has the token, it can transmit data. The token packet travels in a circle or ring in a single direction even though the nodes are physically arranged as a star.

Network Topologies – 4

In which network topology do all nodes have independent connections to all other nodes?

  1. Bus
  2. Mesh
  3. Ring
  4. Star

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: In a mesh topology, all nodes in the mesh have independent connections to all other nodes in the mesh. This configuration makes it very fault tolerant and scalable. Most mesh topologies aren’t fully meshed due to cost. More common is a partial mesh topology with some redundant links.

Star Topology

True or false? In a star topology, when a single connection fails, it doesn’t affect the communication ability of other computers.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: The benefit of the star topology is that because each node has its own connection to the central network connectivity device, when a single connection fails, it doesn’t affect the communication ability of other nodes connected to the same central device. If the central device fails, however, none of the nodes connected to it are able to communicate on the network.

WAN Technologies – 1

Which WAN connection technology uses high-speed connections made over regular analog phone lines?

  1. Cable
  2. Cellular
  3. DSL
  4. Satellite

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: A Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) is a high-speed data and voice transmission line that still uses telephone wires for transmission but carries the digital data at frequencies well above those used for voice transmission. Voice and data can be transmitted at the same time over a DSL connection.

WAN Technology – 2

Which WAN connection technology currently uses LTE?

  1. Cable
  2. Cellular
  3. Wireless
  4. VPN

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: You can now connect to the Internet either through your smartphone or through your laptop using a cellular network PC card. 4G cellular networks are capable of speeds of 100 Mbps while and 1 Gbps while stationary using Long Term Evolution (LTE) technology.

Modem Basics

True or false? The purpose of a modem is to convert digital data signals from a computer into analog signals for transmission over a phone line.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: Modems are devices that enable you to connect your computer to another network through a phone line. The modem in the sending computer must convert the digital signals within the computer to analog signals that are compatible with the phone system. On the other end, the receiving modem must then convert analog signals back into digital signals.

Load Balancing Devices

Which is the function of load balancing devices.

  1. Provide content caching
  2. Increases security on a network
  3. Distribute networking workloads across multiple resources
  4. Find shortest network routes

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: Load balancers are devices that distribute networking or computing workloads across multiple resources. A load balancing router can dynamically adjust network routes to balance the utilization across networks.

Proxy Servers

What is the function of a proxy server? (Choose all that apply)

  1. Acts as an intermediary between a client and the Internet
  2. Connects different subnets together
  3. Provides caching functions
  4. Balances network load

Answer: The correct answer is 1 and 3.

Breakdown: A proxy server is a server that acts as an intermediary between computers on a network and the Internet. Before sending a packet, the proxy server replaces the original sender’s IP address and other identifying information with its own. When the response arrives, the proxy server looks up the original sender’s information, updates the incoming packet, and forwards it to the client. This allows for anonymous access to the Internet, thus providing an added layer of security. Many proxy servers also provide caching functions which speed up content serving so that clients don’t need to constantly hit the Internet for web pages that already reside on the local network.

Modem Connector

Modems use which RJ connector?

  1. RJ-11
  2. RJ-14
  3. RJ-25
  4. RJ-45

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: On a PC, the modem provides a connection for a regular phone line which is an RJ-11 connection – the same type of connection used for a standard phone wall outlet. In addition, a modem usually has an Rj-11 connection for a telephone.

Internetworking Devices – 1

Which internetworking device makes computers that are connected to separate segments appear and behave as if they’re on the same segment?

  1. Bridge
  2. Hub
  3. Router
  4. Switch

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: A bridge is an internetworking device that connects two LANs and makes them appear to be one or segments a larger LAN into two smaller pieces. Bridges can filter traffic thus preventing local traffic from one segment from going beyond the segment.

Internetworking Devices – 2

You’re wiring Ethernet in a star topology. What’s the internetworking device you use to take the signal transmitted from one computer and propagate it to all the other computers in the network?

  1. Bridge
  2. Hub
  3. Repeater
  4. Switch

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: A hub is a network device that can be used to connect network devices. Hubs broadcast data packets to every device on the network at once.

Physical Layer – 1

Which network medium carries light-based data through strands of glass or plastic no thicker than a human hair?

  1. Coaxial cable
  2. Twisted-pair cable
  3. Fiber optic cable

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: Fiber optic cables carry light-based data through strands of glass or plastic and is currently the fastest (and most expensive) network transmission medium.

Physical Layer – 2

Which network medium is composed of four pairs of wires, where the pairs are twisted together and bundled within a covering?

  1. Coaxial cable
  2. Twisted-pair cable
  3. Fiber optic cable

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Unshielded Twisted-Pair (UTP) uses four pairs of wires and is typically used to connect network nodes. The wire pairs are twisted together to prevent crosstalk (interference).

RJ Connectors

Which RJ connector does twisted-pair network cable use?

  1. RJ-11
  2. RJ-14
  3. RJ-25
  4. RJ-45

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: Twisted-pair network cables use RJ-45 connectors. The RJ-45 connector attaches to eight wires.

Network Cable Basics

Which network medium contains a layer of braided wire or foil between the core and the outside insulating layer, plus another layer of plastic or rubberized material that separates the central core from the shielding layer?

  1. Coaxial cable
  2. Twisted-pair cable
  3. Fiber optic cable

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: Coaxial cables (“coax” for short) contain a layer of braided wire or foil between the core and the outside insulating layer. The shielding layer helps protect the data from EMI problems. Coaxial cabling is typically found in older networks.

BNC Connector

The standard BNC barrel connector is considered a how-many-pin connector?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: The standard BNC connector is considered a 2-pin connector – pin 1 is the center conductor, which carries the data signal and pin 2 is the tinned copper braid, which provides the ground.

LAN Cable Length

Which medium has a maximum distance of 100 meters for LAN runs?

  1. Fiber cable
  2. Twisted-pair cable
  3. Coaxial cable
  4. None

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: All twisted-pair cabling has a maximum LAN run length of approximately 100 meters regardless of category.

Cable Impedance

Which medium might also have letters after the number to indicate the cable’s impedance (specified in ohms) and to indicate whether the inner conductor is solid or stranded?

  1. Fiber optic cable
  2. Twisted-pair cable
  3. Coaxial cable
  4. None

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: Coaxial cable comes in many variations and is specified by the RG standard. RG cable might also have letters after the number to indicate cable’s impedance (specified in ohms) and whether the inner conductor is solid or stranded.

Fiber Optic Cable Uses

Fiber optic cabling is often used for what purpose in networks?

  1. LAN wiring
  2. Network backbone
  3. MAN wiring
  4. PSTN

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Fiber optic cable is used by telephone and cable companies to deliver information across long distances. It’s also used as the backbone for networks.

Fiber Optic Cable Grades

True or false? All fiber optic cabling is plenum grade.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Since fiber optic cable doesn’t carry electrical signals it’s safe to use in hazardous, high-voltage environments. It can be used where explosive fumes are present without danger of ignition, however, not all fiber optic cable is plenum grade. For use in plenum installations, fiber optic cable must have an outer material made from some kind of fire-resistant material such as PVC. Such cables are sold as plenum grade fiber optic cables.

Cable Testing Device – Physical

Which are physical cable tests you can perform with a cable testing device? (Choose all that apply)

  1. Testing PC power supplies
  2. Testing PC connections
  3. Locating missing cables
  4. Locating and tracing inactive cables
  5. Testing hub connections
  6. Testing monitor connections
  7. Testing installed cables

Answer: The correct answer is 2, 3, 4, 5, and 7.

Breakdown: A cable testing device can be used to test cables and network connections. It’s a highly versatile device, which can be used to test a wide variety of cables and connections. You can purchase cable testing devices for your particular LAN or one that’s compatible with multiple network types.

Cable Testing Device – Network

Which network function tests can be performed with a cable testing device? (Choose all that apply)

  1. Verifying PC-to-switch speed
  2. Determining if a straight-through or crossover patch cable is required
  3. Modem loopback testing
  4. Determining if a switch has a corrupted MAC address table
  5. Finding Layer 2 loops
  6. Finding speed bottlenecks on LANs
  7. Verifying that a PC or switch is powered on

Answer: The correct answer is 1, 2, 6, and 7.

Breakdown: In addition to testing physical cables and connections, a cable testing device can also test and verify a wide variety of network functions.

Multimeter Measurements

Which electrical measurements are you likely to need to measure using a multimeter? (Choose all that apply)

  1. DC voltage
  2. AC voltage
  3. Resistance and continuity
  4. Electrical power
  5. Current

Answer: The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3.

Breakdown: The basic electrical measurement functions of a multimeter (both analog and digital) are voltage, resistance, and current. Typically, a computer technician will need to measure voltage (both DC and AC) and resistance (mostly in terms of continuity) in the course of his/her work. Electrical current will seldom, if ever, be something that needs to be measured.

Default Subnet Masks

What are the default subnet masks for a Class C IP address?

  1. 255.0.0.0
  2. 255.255.0.0
  3. 255.255.255.0
  4. 0.255.255.255

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: Subnet masks are used to identify the network-ID portion of an IP address. Subnet masks allow additional addresses to be implemented within a given address space. Each IP network class has a default subnet mask. The default submask for a Class C network is: 255.255.255.0.

IP Network Classes

IP address 227.43.76.109 is an example of which of the following classes of IP addresses?

  1. Class A
  2. Class B
  3. Class C
  4. Class D

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: IP addresses in the range of 224.0.0.0 – 239.0.0.0 are Class D addresses. Class D addresses are multicasting addresses.

Default Gateway

True or false? A computer will use a default gateway if the destination IP address is on a different network?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: On a TCP/IP network, if a computer doesn’t know how to deliver a packet, it hands off the packet to the default gateway (usually a router) to deliver. This happens every time a computer needs to deliver a packet to a network other than its own.

IP Address Routing

True or false? The IP address 169.254.226.4 can be routed on the Internet.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: The network 169.254.0.0. is reserved for Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA). Windows 2000 and later operating systems automatically generate an address in this range if they are configured to obtain an IPv4 address from a DHCP server and are unable to contact one. Addresses in this range are private and can’t be used on the Internet.

Physical Network Address

Which unique address is permanently embedded in a NIC by the manufacturer?

  1. Character-based
  2. IPv4
  3. IPv6
  4. MAC e Port

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: A MAC address, also referred to as a physical address, adapter address, or Ethernet address, identifies a device on a LAN. Part of the address contains the manufacturer’s identifier with the rest being a unique number. No two NICs have the same identifying code. MAC addresses are absolute, unlike IP addresses which are subject to change.

IP Address Versions

Which unique address is a 128-bit address written in hexadecimal?

  1. Character-based
  2. IPv4
  3. IPv6
  4. MAC
  5. Port

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: The IP version uses 128-bit addresses. These addresses are written and displayed in the hexadecimal-equivalent values for each of their 16 bytes. Like IPv4 addresses, IPv6 are also composed of two parts: the network ID and the host ID.

IPv6 Address Capacity

How many addresses can IPv6 provide?

  1. 2^32
  2. 2^64
  3. 2^128
  4. 2^256

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: IPv6 has the potential to provide 2^128 unique IP addresses (2 raised to the number of bits in an IPv6 address: 128).

vIPv6 Private Addresses

Which IPv6 address type is similar to an IPv4 private address?

  1. Anycast
  2. Global unicast
  3. Link-local
  4. Multicast
  5. Unique local address

Answer: The correct answer is 5.

Breakdown: The IPv6 equivalent of IPv4 private addresses is the unique local address. These addresses begin with FC or FD.

Name Resolution

What scheme enables many computers to be called “www” without causing naming conflicts?

  1. DHCP
  2. DNS
  3. TCP/IP
  4. WINS

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: The Domain Name System (DNS) is used to resolve host names to IP addresses and to find computers such as Web and e-mail servers. A fully qualified domain name (FQDN) is typically composed of three parts: a host name, a domain name, and a top-level domain name. The “www” part is the host’s name or an alias for the actual name.

IP Address Assignment

What service allows you to automatically assign IP addresses and configuration information to clients?

  1. DHCP
  2. DNS
  3. TCP/IP
  4. WINS

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is an automated mechanism to assign IP addresses dynamically to clients from a pool of possible addresses called a scope. Using DHCP to assign IP configuration to client computers on your network simplifies administration and avoids the problem of IP information being entered incorrectly in the case of static IP assignment.

TCP Basics True or false? TCP is a connection-oriented protocol that creates and verifies a connection with a remote host before sending information.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: TCP is connection-oriented and reliable. It is similar to delivering a letter by registered mail. Inside the letter, each page is numbered so that it can be read in the proper order. When the message is received, the sender is notified that it arrived properly at its destination. If it doesn’t, then the receiver notifies the sender to resend the message.

vSSH Basics

SSH was designed as a replacement for insecure remote shells, which sent data (including passwords) in plain text. Which of the following is one of those insecure remote shells?

  1. FTP
  2. SSL
  3. Telnet
  4. SMTP

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: Secure Shell (SSH) exchanges data between two network nodes over a secure channel. SSH was designed as a replacement for Telnet and other insecure remote shells, which sent data (including passwords) in plain text. These shells left the data open for interception.

E-mail Protocols

Which email protocol is used to send and receive e-mail messages between e-mail servers and used by e-mail client software to send messages to the server, but never used by clients to retrieve email from the server?

  1. IMAP4
  2. POP3
  3. SMTP

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to send and receive e-mail messages between email servers. It is also used by e-mail client software, such as MS Outlook, to send messages to the email server. SMTP is never used by a client computer to retrieve email from a server. Other protocols such as POP3 control the retrieval of e-mail messages.

IEEE 802.11 Standard – 1

Which IEEE 802.11 standard operates in the 2.4 GHz frequency range, has a data speed of up to 20+ Mbps, and has a range of 45 meters indoors and 90 meters outdoors?

  1. 802.11a
  2. 802.11b
  3. 802.11g
  4. 802.11n

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: The 802.11g standard is backwards-compatible with 802.11b which transmits data at 11 Mbps. 802.11g has a higher throughput at 20+ Mbps and some devices advertise speeds of up to 54 Mbps. Devices supporting 802.11g have a transmission range of up to 4 meters indoors and 90 meters outdoors.

IEEE 802.11 Standard – 2

Which IEEE 802.11 standard operates in the 2.4 and 5 GHz frequency range, has a data speed of up to 600 Mbps, and has a range of 70 meters indoors and 250 meters outdoors?

  1. 802.11a
  2. 802.11b
  3. 802.11g
  4. 802.11n

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: Devices supporting 802.11n can transmit data at up to 600 Mbps in either the 5 GHz or 2.4 GHz band. The transmission range is up to 70 meters indoors and 250 meters outdoors.

Wireless Access Point Definition

The IEEE 802.11 standard defines an access point as what?

  1. Device for short distance wireless data communications
  2. Transparent bridge between wireless clients and the wired network
  3. Transceiver capable of wirelessly transmitting data between nodes
  4. Device that converts digital signals to analog signals for WAN communications

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: The 802.11 standard defines an access point (AP) as a device that functions as a transparent bridge between the wireless client and the wired network.

Wireless Network Security

At a bare minimum, what configuration changes should you make to increase the security level of a wireless router?

  1. Update the router’s firmware
  2. Set the transmitter power to the lowest level
  3. Set the most secure transmission encryption methods compatible with your clients
  4. Change the default SSIDs

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: Though there are several configuration steps that you should take to adequately secure a wireless router, but at an absolute minimum, you should enable some form of data encryption method. It is advisable to select the most secure transmission encryption method compatible with the clients on the LAN. Options might include WEP, WPA Personal WPA2, WPA Enterprise, RADIUS, and 802.11i.

NAT Definition

What is NAT?

  1. Encryption method
  2. Routing Protocol
  3. Mapping between public and private IP addresses
  4. Packet filtering protocol

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: Network Address Translation (NAT) devices correlate internal and external addresses. A single public IP address is assigned to the device and each private node is assigned a unique IP address that is not visible to the public network. The NAT device (router) makes certain that inbound and outbound packets arrive at the correct destination. NAT expands the limited number of IP addresses that can be used directly on the Internet and also provides a layer of security to private networks.

Perimeter Network Definition

What is a perimeter network?

  1. Outer range of a Wi-Fi network
  2. Upper floor of a corporate LAN
  3. DMZ between intranet and Internet
  4. Higher-security nodes on a network

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: On larger networks where public access to resources such as a Web server, e-mail server, or FTP server are required, a perimeter network is established where these resources can reside. The perimeter network, also referred to as a demilitarized zone (DMZ), is set up between the private network (intranet) and the Internet. Computers in the DMZ are accessible to computers on both the Internet as well as the intranet. Typically, computers within the DMZ have limited access to computers on the intranet while direct connections between the Internet and the internal network are blocked.

Packet Inspection

Which device examines the contents of traffic between the internal network and the Internet and permits or blocks transmission based on rules?

  1. Cable modem
  2. Bridge
  3. Repeater
  4. Firewall

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: A firewall is a device that controls traffic between a public network and a private internal network. Firewalls examine the contents of network traffic and permit or block transmission based on rules. Firewalls vary in price and complexity and use one or more security techniques such as stateful packet inspection, access control lists, and basic packet filtering.

Professional Communication

True or false? Using jargon is part of professional communication, so you can impress the customer.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: You should always avoid using jargon where plain language suffices. You aren’t out to impress the user with techno-babble. You need to speak clearly about the issue and implement the appropriate solution. Explain any acronyms and abbreviations you use.

Problem Resolution Criteria

A problem is resolved when which of the following occurs?

  1. The symptoms no longer appear on the user’s computer.
  2. You fix the problem either on the user’s computer or on the network.
  3. The technician and the user agree the problem has been resolved.
  4. The user thanks you for helping her out.

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: The problem is not considered resolved until the technician and user both agree that the problem has been fixed.

Communication Level

When you match your communication level with your customer’s abilities, what guidelines for professional communication are you following?

  1. Considering the total message
  2. Considering the customer’s competence
  3. Speaking professionally
  4. Respecting the customer
  5. Matching the delivery channel to the customer

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: You must match your communication level with your customer’s abilities. By assessing the customer’s competence level you can deliver the message appropriately.

Customer Interaction Example

You and a colleague respond to a user who’s having a problem. As the user is describing the problem to your colleague, you roll your eyes. Which guidelines for professional communication are you not following? (Choose all that apply)

  1. Considering the total message
  2. Considering the customer’s competence
  3. Speaking professionally
  4. Respecting the customer
  5. Matching the deliver channel to the customer

Answer: The correct answer is 1 and 4.

Breakdown: Behaving in such a manner in the presence of a customer violates multiple guidelines for professional communication, but the two primary ones that are violated in this example are respecting the customer and considering the total message. Rolling one’s eyes in the presence of a customer is highly disrespectful and sends a hostile message.

Air-Quality Safety

True or false? Air-quality safety measures are for the benefit of computer users only.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Air-quality is important for both humans as well as electronic equipment. Dust and dirt can accumulate inside computers and block air vents that can cause overheating. Hard disk drives, for example, are prone to failure in high-heat environments. Data recovery from damaged drives can be an expensive process.

Cleaning Dust

What can you use to keep ventilation holes clear of dust? (Choose all that apply)

  1. Alcohol-based cleaner
  2. Compressed air
  3. Fan
  4. Lint-free cloth

Answer: The correct answer is 2 and 4.

Breakdown: You should periodically inspect ventilation holes and components for dust. Use compressed-air or an air compressor to push dust and other matter out of the enclosure. A link-free cloth can also be used to clean dust and debris from ventilation openings.

MSDS Ratings

Which MSDS personal protection rating recommends goggles, gloves, and other protective wear?

  1. Rating A
  2. Rating B
  3. Rating C
  4. Rating D

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: The MSDS personal protective C rating recommends wearing goggles, gloves, and other protective gear when using this product. This is the most hazardous rating and extreme caution must be used when handling and disposing of such materials.

Computer Forensics Process

Name the four steps of the computer forensics process.

  1. Interrogation
  2. Preparation
  3. Analysis
  4. Equipment impounding
  5. Collection
  6. Reporting

Answer: The correct answer is 2, 3, 5, and 6.

Breakdown: The four steps in the computer forensics process are: Preparation – training and certification of the examiner. Collection – gathering of all evidence such as logs, systems images, data, etc. Analysis – examine the evidence to determine means and scope of the violation. Reporting – written report describing the incident and evidence and financial impact of the incident.

A+ Troubleshooting Model

Which is the final stage of the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model?

  1. Test the theory to determine the actual cause
  2. Document findings, actions, and outcomes
  3. Identify the problem
  4. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: There are six stages in the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting model with the first being to identify the problem. The sixth, and final stage, is to document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Troubleshooting Stages

In which troubleshooting stage do you consult vendor documentation for descriptions of status lights and other indicators?

  1. Identify the problem
  2. Establish a theory of probably cause
  3. Test the theory to determine actual cause
  4. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: While testing the theory to determine the actual cause of the problem you will be inspecting and testing components related to the problem. This may include examining connections, power being turned on, and visual and audible indicators. You may need to consult vendor documentation for descriptions of status lights and other indicators.

Microsoft Support Sites

What is the name of the Web site containing problem and solution references for the Microsoft client operating systems, such as Windows 2000 Professional, Windows XP, Windows Vista, and Windows 7, as well as many other Microsoft applications?

  1. Microsoft Answers
  2. Microsoft Frequently Asked Questions
  3. Microsoft Help and Support
  4. Microsoft Windows Support Center

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: For help with a problem concerning software or hardware on a computer running a Microsoft operating system, an excellent troubleshooting reference is Microsoft’s Help and Support Center site. A component of the Help and Support Center is the Microsoft Knowledge Base, which explains many Microsoft error messages.

Operating System Basics

Which of the following types of software is responsible for accepting input from devices such as a keyboard, mouse, scanner, or smart card reader, and creating output on devices such as a monitor, printer, or speakers?

  1. Applet
  2. Application
  3. Operating system
  4. Snap-in

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: An operating system is a set of software instructions that control the computer and run other programs on the computer. Applications are installed on top of the operating system and work with the operating system and the computer’s hardware such as the monitor, mouse, keyboard, printer, and other devices.

Software Components

What software component has icons or menus that you can select to perform a function or run a program?

  1. Desktop
  2. Graphical user interface
  3. Linux
  4. Windows

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: A graphical user interface (GUI) has icons or menus that you can click or select to perform a function or run a program. Along with a keyboard and a pointing device such as a mouse, you are able to interact with screen elements when working with a GUI.

Windows 7 Editions – 1

Which Windows 7 edition is intended for large, global organizations with complex IT infrastructures?

  1. Windows 7 Professional
  2. Windows 7 Enterprise
  3. Windows 7 Home Basic
  4. Windows 7 Home Premium
  5. Windows 7 Starter
  6. Windows 7 Ultimate

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: The Windows 7 Enterprise edition is designed for large, global organizations with complex IT infrastructures and is available only through Microsoft’s volume licensing programs.

Windows 7 Editions – 2

Unless you work in an emerging technology market, which Windows 7 edition are you least likely to support?

  1. Windows 7 Professional
  2. Windows 7 Enterprise
  3. Windows 7 Home Basic
  4. Windows 7 Home Premium
  5. Windows 7 Starter
  6. Windows 7 Ultimate

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: The Windows 7 Home Basic edition is only available in emerging markets. It’s highly unlikely that you will encounter it in the course of your work as an IT professional.

Windows Vista Editions

The Aero desktop GUI with Flip 3D isn’t available in which Windows Vista edition?

  1. Windows Vista Business
  2. Windows Vista Enterprise
  3. Windows Vista Home Basic
  4. Windows Vista Home Premium
  5. Windows Vista Ultimate

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: The Aero desktop GUI with Flip 3D is not available in Windows Vista Home Basic along with several other advanced features only available in the higher-end Windows Vista editions.

Advanced Windows Features

Which features aren’t available in either of the Windows 7 or Vista Home editions? (Choose all that apply)

  1. BitLocker Drive Encryption
  2. Encrypting File System (EFS)
  3. Windows DVD Maker
  4. Windows HD Movie Maker
  5. Windows premium games
  6. Windows Media Center and Media Center Extenders

Answer: The correct answer is 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6.

Breakdown: As can be seen, the Home editions of Windows 7 and Vista don’t come with many advanced features and applications.

Multiprocessor Support

Multiprocessor support is a feature of which Windows XP version?

  1. Windows XP Home
  2. Windows XP Media Center
  3. Windows XP Professional

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: Multiprocessor support is found in the Windows XP Professional edition. The Professional version is designed for the business user. The feature sets of these editions vary significantly because business organizations need to control and secure their client computers more than the typical home user.

Windows Interface Components

Which Windows interface component is the main work area and starting point for beginning all other tasks.?

  1. Aero
  2. Desktop
  3. GUI
  4. Taskbar
  5. System tray

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: All Windows GUIs use a desktop as the main work area and starting point for beginning all other tasks.

Windows Notification Area

What components are part of the notification area? (Choose all that apply)

  1. Clock
  2. Gadgets
  3. Recycle bin
  4. Taskbar
  5. Volume

Answer: The correct answer is 1 and 4.

Breakdown: The Windows notification area displays icons for system and program applications that are running but have no desktop presence. The time and volume icons are displayed in the notification area. Note: Sometimes you will hear this area referred to as the “system tray”; Microsoft says this is incorrect.

Windows Command Line

Which command line command is used to change the current directory?

  1. dir
  2. cd
  3. md
  4. rd

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: The command line command to change the current directory is: cd

Windows Dir Command

What dir command would you use to view all hidden files in C:\Windows\System32 in alphabetical order, by extension, across multiple columns?

  1. dir C:WindowsSystem32 /a:h
  2. dir C:WindowsSystem32 /a:h /o:-n
  3. dir C:WindowsSystem32*exe /o:n
  4. dir C:WindowsSystem32 /a:h /o:n

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: The “/a:h” file attributes switch with option to display hidden files combined with the “/o:n” file sort switch and option to display files in alphabetical order.

Virtualization Components

Which virtualization component is used to divide one physical server into multiple isolated virtual servers?

  1. Bare metal
  2. Hypervisor
  3. Virtual NIC
  4. Application virtualization

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: A hypervisor, or virtual machine manager, is the core virtualization software that enables multiple virtual computers to run on a single physical host. The hypervisor controls and allocates the host machine’s resources to give each guest operating system what it needs while making sure that the different VMs (virtual machines) on the host machine do not interfere with each other.

Virtual Machine Types

Which kind of VMs are stored on the user’s physical computer?

  1. Centrally hosted
  2. Network hosted
  3. Locally hosted
  4. Remotely hosted

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: Locally hosted VMs are stored on the user’s computer, using its resources and storage.

Virtual Machine Security

True or false? Virtual machines are generally not vulnerable to the same malware that physical machines are.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Despite virtualization having some benefits when it comes to security, they are still vulnerable to malware attacks, user errors, and external attacks just like a standalone computer. VMs still require firewalls, antivirus software, and user security measures just like ordinary desktops on the network.

Control Panel Basics

The utilities located in the Control Panel are also known as what?

  1. Consoles
  2. Applets
  3. Snap-ins
  4. Plug-ins

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: The Windows Control Panel is a group of utilities called applets that you can use to control your computer’s operating system.

Task Manager Tabs

Which tab in Task Manager can you use to monitor the performance of memory in your computer system?

  1. Applications
  2. Networking
  3. Performance
  4. Processes
  5. Services

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: Task Manager is a Windows GUI utility that provides information about the applications, processes, and services that are running on your computer. The Performance tab within Task Manager displays a dynamic representation of the most common performance indicators for your computers such as CPU and page file usage, number of threads, handles, and processes among others.

Configuration Settings Database

What is the database that contains configuration settings in Windows called?

  1. Settings file
  2. System Options
  3. Registry
  4. Control Panel

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: Registry files are binary files that store configuration settings for both the operating system and applications.

DirectX Diagnostic

True or false? In Windows 7, you can use DirectX Diagnostic to test and troubleshoot video- or sound-related hardware problems.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: In Windows 7 and Windows Vista, DirectX Diagnostic (dxdiag.exe) is a utility you can use to see the status of your DirectX installation, however, unlike in Windows 2000 Professional and Windows XP, you are unable to test and troubleshoot video- or sound-related problems.

Task Manager End Process

Which Task Manager tab do you use when an application has crashed and isn’t responding to keyboard or mouse input?

  1. Performance
  2. Application
  3. Processes
  4. Users

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: The Application tab in Task Manager displays the status of applications running on your computer. You can end an application, switch to a running application, or start an application from this tab.

Task Manager Resource Monitoring

Which Task Manager tab do you use to determine if a running process is overwhelming the processor and slowing down the system?

  1. Performance
  2. Application
  3. Networking
  4. Processes

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: The Processes tab in Task Manager displays information about the processes that are running on your computer. Information about the process’s percentage of CPU usage and the amount of memory the process is using is displayed. You can end processes from this tab, which comes in handy if a process is consuming too much in the way of computing resources.

Ending Processes

What would you enter from the command line to end a task with Process ID 2940?

  1. endprocess 2940
  2. killprocess 2940
  3. killprocess /pid 2940
  4. taskkill /pid 2940

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: To kill a process, you use the taskkill command-line command with the /pid switch followed by the process ID you wish to kill.

Administrative Tools

Which console provides a central location for a variety or administrative tools?

  1. Microsoft Management Console
  2. Services console
  3. Administrative Tools
  4. Computer Management console

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: The Computer Management console contains a group of tools you can use to manage the local computer or a remote computer.

Services Console

Which tab of a service’s Properties dialog box do you use to configure the operating system response when the service fails?

  1. Dependencies
  2. General
  3. Log On
  4. Recovery

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: The Recovery tab in a service’s Properties dialog box allows you to configure the computer’s response when a service fails, including various actions depending on the number of failures, which includes specifying a program that the operating system should run when a service failure occurs.

Service Properties Dialog Box

Which tab of a service’s Properties dialog box shows what other services it needs to run as well as those which require it to run?

  1. Recovery
  2. General
  3. Dependencies
  4. Log On

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: The Dependencies tab in the service’s Properties dialog box specifies the services that a service depends on to function correctly as well as the services which depend on this service in order to function.

Device Management

Which window provides a central location you can use to view and access all of your computer’s devices?

  1. Hardware console
  2. System Settings
  3. Administrative Settings
  4. Devices and Printers window

Answer: The correct answer is 4.

Breakdown: In Windows 7 the Devices and Printers window provides a central location where you can view and access all of your computer’s devices. You can view detailed information about each device, determine if each device is working properly, and connect network devices and printers that were not added automatically.

Device AutoPlay

True or false? If a device is not yet Device Stage-enabled, the AutoAPlay dialog box opens when you connect the device to your computer.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: If a device is not yet Device Stage-enabled, the AutoPlay dialog box will open when you connect the device to your computer. AutoPlay provides general options for interacting with devices.

Device Stage-enabled

True or false? If a device is not yet Device Stage-enabled, double-clicking its icon in the Devices and Printers window opens a specialized page with icons and options; this is an XML “page” built by the device manufacturer.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: In the Devices and Printers window, double-clicking a device not supported by Device Stage will open the Properties dialog box for that device.

Power States

In which power state does the computer take all current applications running in RAM, save them to the systems swap partition on the hard disk, and turn the computer’s power off?

  1. Hibernate
  2. Sleep
  3. Shut down
  4. Standby

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: During hibernation mode, the computer takes all current applications running in RAM, saves them in the swap partition on the hard disk, and then turns the notebook’s power off. All components of the computer are turned off. As a result, the Hibernate power state requires zero power. The OS is restored faster from this state than from a shutdown, but more slowly than from the Sleep power state.

Benefits of Power Management

True or false? Power management features are beneficial for notebook computers only.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Power consumption is most important with portable computers that get their power from rechargeable batteries, but even on desktops effective power management can save energy and therefore money for the user or organization.

Disk Management Utility

True or false? The Disk Management utility allows you to change the size of partitions without losing data.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 1.

Breakdown: The Disk Management utility allows you to alter existing partitions on a disk. You can extend a partition if there is unallocated space next to it on the disk. You can also shrink a partition to free up space if the partition is not full.

Combining Disk Volumes

What type of volume combines two physical disks of the same size into one larger, faster disk?

  1. Dynamic
  2. Spanned
  3. Striped
  4. Mirrored

Answer: The correct answer is 3.

Breakdown: Striped volumes use RAID 0 to combine multiple disks of the same size into one larger and faster volume.

Corporate Networks

Corporate networks are typically:

  1. GANs
  2. LANs
  3. MANs
  4. Public

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: Corporate networks typically use Local Area Networks (LANs) to network computers and devices. The prevailing LAN technology is Ethernet.

Managing Network Connections

What Windows feature can you use to manage network connections?

  1. Computer Management console
  2. Network and Sharing Center
  3. Administrative console
  4. Task Manager

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: The Windows Network and Sharing Center allows you to configure a wide range of networking settings.

Networking and Sharing

With what kind of sharing must matching user accounts be created on each PC?

  1. Printer sharing
  2. File sharing
  3. Drive sharing
  4. Connection sharing

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: To share files or folders with other users on a network, you use the Share with command to select users that you wish to give access to your files or folders.

Wake on LAN

True or false? You can’t connect to a network computer that is in Sleep or Hibernate mode.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: The correct answer is 2.

Breakdown: The Wake on LAN feature allows you to configure a computer, such as a print server, that is in a power saving mode to “wake up” when the network card receives a connection request.

Public Folders

True or false? by default, files placed in the Public folders are automatically shared on the network.